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Paris Saint-Germain initially loaned Xavi Simons to RB Leipzig for a second season as a short-term solution, but that situation has changed, with RB Leipzig securing the young talent on a permanent transfer.

PSG may have sidestepped a potential issue, with a recent report revealing concerns about Simons’ attitude at Leipzig. However, with a sell-on clause in place, PSG’s future interests could still be affected.

CaughtOffside recently claimed that Manchester United may have the upper hand over Manchester City in the race to sign Simons next summer.

Transfer expert Fabrizio Romano confirmed the permanent move, with the deal valued at €80 million, including add-ons. The initial fee is €55 million, with the inclusion of the sell-on clause.

Romano also noted that Simons’ contract runs until June 2027, though he could be on the move again this summer, with several clubs already keeping tabs on him.

What’s the latest on Xavi Simons’ future?

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According to Italian journalist Nicolo Schira, several Premier League heavyweights are monitoring Simons. Liverpool, Arsenal, and Manchester City are reportedly interested in the 21-year-old attacking midfielder.

His current club, Leipzig, expects a minimum of €70 million for him. Regardless of where Simons ends up, a move to a top European club would be a significant step in his development.

Recently, Romano reported that Manchester United, Liverpool, Arsenal, and Chelsea are all monitoring Simons.